I base my question solely on the WIKI of the division of the Land of Israel between the 9.5 tribes (the final division by Yehoshua).
I'm not a big of a geographer, but I live in Israel, and I know the country a bit, but I see no way those areas can be valued proportionally equally (compare Dan and Menashe and Ephraim, for example).
The Torah evidently prescribes to divide the land according to the relative value of the land (Num 26,54):
לָרַב תַּרְבֶּה נַחֲלָתוֹ וְלַמְעַט תַּמְעִיט נַחֲלָתוֹ אִישׁ לְפִי פְקֻדָיו יֻתַּן נַחֲלָתוֹ׃
with larger groups increase the share, with smaller groups reduce the share. Each is to be assigned its share according to its enrollment.
Rashi ibid.:
וְלֹא נִתְחַלְּקָה הָאָרֶץ בְּמִדָּה, לְפִי שֶׁיֵּשׁ גְּבוּל מְשֻׁבָּח מֵחֲבֵרוֹ, אֶלָּא בְשׁוּמָא, בֵּית כֹּר רַע כְּנֶגֶד בֵּית סְאָה טוֹב, הַכֹּל לְפִי הַדָּמִים:
Did anyone make a research on the truthfulness of this claim, because it does not seem so from the chart?
