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السلام ءليكم ورحمه الله وبركاته I have a question of the Hadith: Sunan an-Nasa'i 3959. This Hadith demonstrates that Muhammad saw had intercourse with a female slave. Does this mean that prophet Muhammad saw had a slave? Isn’t slavery haraam? I am confused and do not understand very well. بارك الله فيك

Meryem
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Slavery is not haraam as many liberal Muslims have spread and even people like Syed Qutb May Allah Forgive him have written in his Tafseer

It is restricted right now and up to the ijtihad of the Imam of Muslims to allow it or not.

Shaykh Saleh Al Fawzan responded to the notion that "There is no Slavery in Islam". Click on his name you will be redirected to the video.

Muhammad ﷺ had slaves even the mother of believers Juweriyah رضى الله عنها was a slave but Prophet ﷺ freed her and married.

Maria Al Qibtiyah رضى الله عنها and Rayhana رضى الله عنها were slave women.

Mohammad Alam
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Indeed he had a one, and he treated his slave with respect and care, but I don't know about the female slave part...In the quran, it is mentioned in surah al Mareej that it is permissible to have intercourse with your slave from the opposite sex! Hope that helps.

Marwan Mohamed
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  • Please provide reference, one, because your statement will be questioned without reference, second ,for all to see the proper context. – Gyro Gearloose Mar 30 '24 at 19:45
  • In surah al Maarej, aya 30, it says:[الا علي ازواجهم او ما ملكت ايمانهم فإنهم غير ملومين] which means that the man is allowed to have intercourse with his wife and a female slave. – Marwan Mohamed Mar 31 '24 at 22:02