Why does Islamic law allow Muslim men to marry Non-Muslim women but not vice versa?

Question

After reading Interfaith marriage in Islam, I understand that According to traditional interpretation of Islamic law (sharīʿa), a Muslim man is allowed to marry a Christian or Jewish woman but a Muslim woman is not allowed to marry a Non-Muslim man.

Answer 1

You can find the base of our regulations in the question cited in the comment by UmH.

To note that, according to Jewish Halacha (their Sharia interpretation, which is not considered relevant in Islam), a Jewish women is not allowed to marry a Muslim man, either.

There is no proscription for a Christian woman from her side, and there is no full consensus in Islam concerning a marriage between a Muslim man and a woman who has a different other monotheistic belief, e.g. Sikh, Druse, Baha'i; some Maliki and Hanafi scholars consider it halal through analogy, others, in particular Shafii and Salafi reject it.

Muslim scholars often content with the given Word; any answer to the question "why" is mere speculation, not forbidden but not safe in any sense.

I see that ruling on the background that in the understanding of the time, it was clear that the children would follow the religion of the father; under marriage the woman is protected by her husband; she is invited but not forced to accept Islam. As said above, this is just an Idea without any authority.

The ruling of Islam does not consider that this may be the same if the woman is Muslim and the man isn't, because in the time of the revelation, this seemed unrealistic. Orthodox Islamic scholars would not accept such inversion because it contradicts known rulings.