Please explain options. Two non-Muslim people meet while separated from their legal spouses awaiting divorce. There is a sexual relationship and eventually they marry after the other divorces were complete. Years later the husband converts to Islam. What is the status of their marriage and how can it become valid?
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If the husband becomes a Muslim and the wife is among people of the book the marriage is still valid -according to shari'a-! If not please add this information in your post, as it is essential! The opposite situation is covered in my answer on https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/1319/will-a-non-muslim-marriage-still-be-valid-if-the-husband-or-the-wife-reverts-t – Medi1Saif Sep 08 '17 at 18:51
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Thank you. She was raised as a (non-practicing Anglican) – user24122 Sep 09 '17 at 00:39
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please use the edit link to add additional information. – Medi1Saif Sep 09 '17 at 09:42
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Islam SE is not a fatwa site (off-topic here). While questions on the legality of actions (from an Islamic perspective) are welcome, answers may be posted by anybody regardless of knowledge, training or expertise. It is important to judge the evidence provided by each answer to the best of your own abilities and accept such answers at your own risk. – III-AK-III Sep 10 '17 at 00:10
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1I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because this question requires a fatwa. Islam SE is not a fatwa site. – III-AK-III Sep 10 '17 at 00:11
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1Possible duplicate of Will a (non-Muslim) marriage still be valid if the husband or the wife reverts to Islam? – Rebecca J. Stones Sep 10 '17 at 09:04