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Also is it such that every Earth only sees 1 yuga cycle? And for some who will say that Ramayana happened in 24th treta and this is 28th treta, What about the various temples and places and mansions and other Ramayana era proofs existing today?

Suryanshu Tiwari
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  • Yuga system is puranic. It is hence mythical. The data given in Ramayana (corresponding to the planet positions) is 5114 B.C. to best of my knowledge and the age of Rama was around 103 years before death (which is again inconsistent to Puranic systems). Vedas and Upanishads don't prescribe to these formats. They are the mode of bhakti only. – User 29449 Dec 28 '23 at 16:11
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    @AbhasKumarSinha - Kali Yug started 3102 BC according to Surya Siddhant. If Kali Yug itself is currently in it's 5000th year, there is no way Treta Yug was in 5114 BC, which would make the in-between Dwapar Yug only 2000 years duration. Who told you that Vedas and Upanishads are modes of bhakti only ? They have the highest rigor of Jnana (philosophy systems) ever produced by mankind. This utter nonsense that Puranas are a myth is common among tiktok generation. – ram Dec 29 '23 at 12:26
  • @mar The archeological survey itself talks about the age of Ramayana in 5114 BC (estimated). I'd go over scientific evidence than puranic medium. Nowhere I said Vedas and Upanishads talk about bhakti only. Where are you deducing these from my statements? Puranas are mythical, hence I don't accept it's authority, all abrahamic ideas came to Hinduism through Puranas only, they were rewritten multiple times and final versions have a lot of error. – User 29449 Dec 29 '23 at 12:39
  • @mar also note, nowhere any upanishads and Vedas support puranic ideas of yugas. The scientific evidence clearly shows them contradictory. In case your answer support puranic lines, you should mention the source as well. – User 29449 Dec 29 '23 at 12:41
  • there are many answers on this site that do that - https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/48669/which-scripture-mentions-yuga-length/48962, https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/questions/9009/did-ramayana-occur-1-6-million-years-ago/9015

    do you know how many shakas of Vedas have been lost over time ? how can any scientific-minded person say "Vedas do not contain this info" when 95% of Vedas are lost? what if those lost shakas mentioned yuga length ? what if Sruti mentioned all those things which people now say "exist only in Smriti, not in Sruti, so we can ignore it" ?

     – ram Dec 29 '23 at 12:49
  • Apparently, Yajnavalkya Smriti mentioned 14 vidya-sthanas (4 vedas, 6 vedangas, mimamsa, nyaya, purana, dharmashastra) - all these are derived from vedas only :

    “PurAna nyAya mimAngsA dharmshAstrAnga mishritAh |

    VedAh sthAnAni vidyAnAm dharmasya cha chaturdasha ||”

    Puranas (and Itihasas) are accepted as a guiding light for society.

     – ram Dec 29 '23 at 12:50
  • "all abrahamic ideas came to Hinduism through Puranas only" - lol, standard way of deflecting all historical events to the invaders. Which ideas are you talking about ? – ram Dec 29 '23 at 12:53
  • Why are you defending Vedas using puranas? Clearly puranas came very late, even after the coming up of Bible. How they do even have anything related to lost ideas of Vedas? As a rule of thumb, anything that contradicts archeological evidence has been altered and is of no use, including puranic yuga system. They were meant to be a text on bhakti only. @mar – User 29449 Dec 29 '23 at 12:57
  • The difference between itihaas and puranas is itihass literally means real historical events. This is why events in puranas aren't called itihaas. Puranic ones are mythical. No wonder shrutis make a distinction between these @mar – User 29449 Dec 29 '23 at 12:58
  • "Clearly puranas came very late, even after the coming up of Bible." - hahahaaa.. i've heard enough to realize debating with you is fruitless. – ram Dec 29 '23 at 12:59
  • @mar Now stop spamming me, if you don't have any evidence to support the answer or add something meaningful to my point. You literally aren't making sense at this stage. – User 29449 Dec 29 '23 at 13:00
  • @AbhasKumarSinha - all the given evidence in scriptural reference in my previous comment and other answers on this site, and still you say puranas written after bible - that just means you don't accept this evidence, you would rather accept only gora ppl evidence, that's your choice. stop spamming this site with incorrect info in comments. – ram Dec 29 '23 at 13:46
  • @AbhasKumarSinha I think he means by Abrahamic ideas as in the preference for one form over the other, but the Vedas are generally considered authorless and unincorporated by every clergy member stating Vishnu is supreme. Indeed, Puranas came later to Vedas, but many still see them as really older than the dates given. Also, a good chunk of the Vedas as stated above are lost. – Haridasa Jan 02 '24 at 00:50
  • @Haridasa Yes a very vast amount of Vedas are lost too. I suspect Modern Puranas to be altered, probably because a lot of things in them are not only in direct contradiction to Vedas, and Upanishads but themselves too at other pages. Given, they are a still an excellent source of Bhakti, if one NOT intends to use it for intellectual debates. – User 29449 Jan 02 '24 at 03:36
  • Yes sir yes sir! – Haridasa Jan 02 '24 at 12:01

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