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It is said that the language sanskrit is derived from Vedas, i.e. mantras were first revealed to Rishis in deep meditation and then Sanskrit language came from it.

But we also know that Sanskrit is the language of Gods. So how was communication taking place in heaven and other realms or for that matter between Brahma-Vishnu-Shiva before Sanskrit came into form we know today.

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There are some who are of the view that Sanskrit was being spoken in other realms before it was revealed to Rishis. That may not be true as "manasputras" preceded devtas. But then for a moment ignore this, accept that Sanskrit was being spoken in heaven and other lokas, and take a step back.

Even Lord Brahma got the Vedas in meditation. He didn't author it. So are we saying vedas were revealed to Lord Brahma who explained it to beings in other realms and in the process Sanskrit language was developed ?

Tom Sol
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Artist Formerly Known As CSD
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    I don't see any question here. Gods were always speaking in Sanskrit, later Rishis also learnt it. And gave it to us. Gods didn't learn from Rishis, they already knew. Rishis rediscovered it. –  May 06 '20 at 20:08
  • 'mantra' is sanskrit. – Swami Vishwananda May 07 '20 at 10:35
  • @SwamiVishwananda - Thank you. If not mistaken you are saying that mantras preceded the colloquial usage of language be it on this loka or other lokas. So question is how was communication taking place before these mantras were revealed – Artist Formerly Known As CSD May 07 '20 at 11:27

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We should keep in mind that the idea or concept of Gods or Devas is metaphysical (adhyAtmam). In other words, we cannot think of Devas communicating through a human-like language. Even at a level that is lower than metaphysical, let's call it "theological" (adhidaivatam), the Devas cannot be communicating like humans (adhibhUtam).

That's why Rgveda 1.164.45 says:

चत्वारि वाक्परिमिता पदानि तानि विदुर्ब्राह्मणा ये मनीषिणः ।
गुहा त्रीणि निहिता नेङ्गयन्ति तुरीयं वाचो मनुष्या वदन्ति ॥

There are four levels of speech which the wise know. Three of those levels are hidden and do not move, the fourth level is what humans speak.

So the human speech, whether it is Sanskrit or other languages, is only the outermost level of communication. The Gods communicate in the three subtle levels in which the Veda exists eternally.

RV 1.164.39:

ऋचो अक्षरे परमे व्योमन्यस्मिन्देवा अधि विश्वे निषेदुः

The Vedas exist in the highest realm where the Devas also reside.

The rishis being the wise people, have accessed the three hidden levels, and brought the Veda down to the fourth outer level of human speech.

TheLittleNaruto
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RamAbloh
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    Welcome to HSE! Really liked your answer and voted. Could you please explain the meaning of or elaborate the four levels (subtle and outer) of speech and what does it mean by they are hidden and do not move? How can they move or not move? – Adiyarkku Jun 19 '20 at 04:49
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    @Archit The Sanskrit term is vAk, they are of 4 kinds: Paraa, Pashyanti, Madhyama, Vaikhari. Read here in detail: https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/a/36803/647 – TheLittleNaruto Jun 19 '20 at 05:45
  • @Archit thank you. I see TheLittleNaruto has beat me to it :) Great answer, but the idea of chakras is quite recent (relatively), and is not seen in Vedas. The 4 types of speech correspond to the 4 states of consciousness as seen in Mandukya Upanishad. Parā=Brahman, Paśyantī=Deep Sleep, Madhyamā=Dreaming, Vaikharī=Waking. You can now see why the first 3 are said to not move, i.e. they are not manifest in the physical world. They are stages of progression from subtle (sūkṣma) to gross (sthūla). Hope this helps! – RamAbloh Jun 19 '20 at 14:44
  • @RamAbloh Could you also join chatroom? It would be great to have you in chat for general discussion on dharma. Thanks :-) – TheLittleNaruto Jun 19 '20 at 15:18
  • @TheLittleNaruto I think I did yesterday. I'm not fully sure how it works. I "toggled" it as a favorite, but is there something else I need to do? – RamAbloh Jun 19 '20 at 15:31
  • @RamAbloh There is a chatbox at the bottom of a window. Where you can tap and write message and once done with writing message, you can send it by clicking on "Send" button. Pinging works same way as it is working here ie with "@" preceded by username. – TheLittleNaruto Jun 19 '20 at 15:43
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Sanskrit is not the language of Gods.Prakrit is the original language. Then Pali came into vogue. These were the Languages of god.

On Earth, Tamil is the oldest language and Sanskrit evolved with many modifications. In Tamil you dont have Kha,ga,gha / Chha, ja,jha /tta, da dda / thha, dha,ddha /fa, ba,bha. So when you have to write Kaga (crow in sanskrit), Tamilians write Kaka.

To understand phonetics better, Sanskrit brought in all those extra alphabets. Other Indian languages followed suit except Konkani. They do follow Sanskrit alphabets but many words are from Prakrit and Pali.

No history is available showing death or declined use of Prakrit and Pali and Sanskrit becoming dominating language.

Mohan Prabhu
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  • This seems more like an opinion than an actual answer. Its been well established in scriptures that deities communicate in sanskrit. However if you have scriptural evidence that states otherwise then please share – Artist Formerly Known As CSD May 07 '20 at 11:20
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    Sanskrit and Tamil are both Anaadi (beginning-less). This sounds like a DMK-inspired anti-Northie post. Most languages in India are based on Sanskrit and a mix of Tamil. – ram Jun 17 '20 at 06:58
  • The "oldest language" is not something historical linguists have been able to reconstruct yet, with consensus. No one knows what it is, but we for sure know it wasn't modern Tamil nor was it Sanskrit (why the hell would it be? Why not the oldest language be Haida or Wiradjuri instead?). Prakrit and Pali also came from Vedic which in turn came from Proto-Indo-European, that's an established fact. Some linguists further suggest that Proto-Indo-European and Proto-Dravidian (the ancestor of Tamil, Telugu, Kurukh, etc.) came from Proto-Nostratic, but that view is very far from the mainstream. – abhishek Jul 21 '23 at 14:46
  • One very very far from mainstream opinion is that Proto-Nostratic came from Proto-Borean which somehow came from Proto-Human, the ancestor of all human languages spoken today. Since linguists do not even agree on whether Proto-Nostratic was real or not (Proto-Indo-European, on the other hand, definitely was), this all unfortunately remains within the realm of untested hypothesis, until our lower-level reconstructions (e.g. of Proto-Dravidian or Proto-Afroasiatic) can improve and we can somehow find a bunch of really good cognates with regular sound correspondences across these larger families. – abhishek Jul 21 '23 at 14:51
  • But to address your point- if this minority view hypothesis proves to be correct, it would make Proto-Human the oldest known language on earth, and even Proto-Human presumably evolved from something else, ultimately, whatever first human language was there evolved from the kind of communication used by non-human primates. I guess the first language on earth was the way that Archaea colonies would communicate with each other or among each other a few billion years ago. – abhishek Jul 21 '23 at 14:54
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Rig veda 1.164.39 says as follows:

रचो अक्षरे परमे वयोमन यस्मिन देवा अधि विश्वे निषेदुः | यस्तन न वेद किं रचा करिष्यति य इत तद विदुस्त इमे समासते ||

ṛco akṣare parame vyoman yasmin devā adhi viśve niṣeduḥ | yastan na veda kiṃ ṛcā kariṣyati ya it tad vidusta ime samāsate ||

The syllable of the verse, upon which all the gods have settled, is in the highest heaven— he who does not know that (syllable), what will he accomplish by his verse? Only those who know it sit together here

The vedas rest in the imperishable syllable in the Highest heaven/Supreme ether, where the Gods have settled. The imperishable syllable in which the Veda was seen/observed by the seers, is the Sanskrit.

Hence, the Gods communicated in Sanskrit.

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Srimannarayana K V
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  • I am not questioning whether Gods communicated in Sanskrit. I am asking how was communication taking place before vedic mantras were revealed to Gods. – Artist Formerly Known As CSD May 07 '20 at 13:12
  • My answer remains the same. The Rig Veda is the oldest known literary work. Whether it was before or after revelation of the Veda mantras, the language of the Gods remains the same @Carmensandiego – Srimannarayana K V May 07 '20 at 14:06
  • I don't see how it is an answer to my question. Comment -yes. Useful - yes. And lets assume language came after Vedas , so is it being said Gods understood the meaning without having the language in place – Artist Formerly Known As CSD May 07 '20 at 14:13
  • Gods knew the language of the Veda irrespective of the fact that whether it's script the same or not @Carmensandiego – Srimannarayana K V May 07 '20 at 14:29
  • You may want to compare the meaning of 1.164.39 with whats mentioned here - https://hinduism.stackexchange.com/a/18501/18974 – Artist Formerly Known As CSD May 07 '20 at 17:11
  • Sorry. I am not interested in comparison of other member's answers with that of mine. It will lead to unwarranted frictions between members and arguments. If you are happy with my answer, it's fine. If you are not satisfied with my answer, you can move on, ignoring my answer. It is your Choice @Carmensandiego – Srimannarayana K V May 07 '20 at 18:15