Which one is grammatically correct "Jack has never been to America" or "Jack has never gone to America"
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2Can you tell us what you think and why so people can help you better? – mdewey Nov 16 '21 at 13:18
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1Both are grammatical, but the first is more idiomatic. – Kate Bunting Nov 16 '21 at 13:28
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1Does this answer your question? Using have gone to / been to / been in – FumbleFingers Nov 16 '21 at 17:13
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Generally, the difference between been to America and gone to America is that the first implies and has come back and the second doesn't.
(This is a special meaning of been - it doesn't work with any other form of be, so you can't say I want to be to America.)
However, in this case, the never neutralises the difference. As Kate Bunting says in a comment, been is more idiomatic, but both are grammatical, and in this case have no practical difference in meaning.
Colin Fine
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