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The Doctrine of the Trinity is affirmed by the Catholic Church and more in general by the large majority of Christian denominations, Orthodox, "mainline" Protestant etc., with some relevant exceptions (Jehovah's Witnesses, Biblical Unitarians, Christadelphians, etc.)

How is Jesus, resurrected and sitting on the right hand of the Father, related to the Trinity? Is he the same as God-the-Son? Does God-the-Son somehow "incorporate" the humanity of Jesus?

curiousdannii
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Miguel de Servet
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  • Is there a particular reason you're focussing on the resurrected Jesus? Why is the pre death Jesus not in view? – curiousdannii May 09 '21 at 10:28
  • @curiousdannii I have focused on the resurrected Jesus, and I don't think I have to account for my choice to anybody, as long as my question is not against the Code of Conduct. Anyway, the resurrection of Jesus is possibly the most important single belief of Christians of all "brands". P.S. Did you read my "pre-emptive comment for over-zealous Moderators"? Do you have any idea who deleted it? Thank you. – Miguel de Servet May 09 '21 at 12:16
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    You don't have to account for your choice, but you should, because it seems significant, and how can anyone give a helpful answer to your question if they don't understand your motivation for asking it and your reasons for phrasing it as you did? I removed your comment because it wasn't relevant or necessary. If you ever think a question has been wrongly closed, please make a discussion on [meta] instead of vaguely talking about it on other questions. – curiousdannii May 09 '21 at 12:37
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    (1). How is Jesus, resurrected and sitting on the right hand of the Father, related to the Trinity ? - In much the same manner in which the non-resurrected Jesus, not yet physically sitting on the right hand of the Father, is also related to the Trinity. (2). Does God-the-Son somehow "incorporate" the humanity of Jesus? - See Incarnation. –  May 09 '21 at 13:51
  • @Lucian (1) Jesus walking on earth was God-man. Correct me if I'm wrong, but this is the trinitarian doctrine. (2) In what sense is the resurrected and ascended Jesus still "man"? – Miguel de Servet May 09 '21 at 16:03
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    @MigueldeServet You misunderstand both the scripture and what was defined at the Council of Nicea. The 'life the eternal which was with the Father was manifested' says John. He who is come 'quickening Spirit' is 'come of woman', says Paul. Deity, in the Person of the Son of God, is manifested in humanity. But that is not 'God-man' as you suppose. The Person is eternal God, the manifestation is humanity. – Nigel J May 09 '21 at 16:40
  • PS I don't know what you mean, trying to guess my thoughts (you write, "as you suppose"). Anyway, I believe that Jesus Christ is ‘like us in all things but sin’ (Hebrews 4:15) – Miguel de Servet May 09 '21 at 19:31
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    @MigueldeServet: (1). Yes. And ? (2). Why wouldn't He be ? –  May 09 '21 at 19:39
  • @Lucian (1) Whether you like it or not, my question is specifically about "Jesus, resurrected and sitting on the right hand of the Father". (2) How? (I am the one asking the question, here ...) – Miguel de Servet May 09 '21 at 19:52
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    @MigueldeServet: Never leave a space after the @ sign. It's not a question of (dis)liking your post; it's just that neither I, nor the rest of the community, apparently, are able to grasp or comprehend the reasoning or meaning behind it. Could you explain why you'd think that there should be a difference as to personhood between the risen and non-risen Christ, and/or why you'd think His human nature disappeared after the resurrection or ascension; or whatever it is that you are trying to relay here; I'm not even sure I'm able to understand the question, let alone answer it. –  May 09 '21 at 23:02

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According to Nicene Christianity, the answer is simple: Jesus is the same being and person from the moment of his incarnate conception through to his life on earth, his death, his resurrection, and his ascension into heaven. That is, the second person of the Godhead, the Son of God, took on a complete human nature, which was united to the divine nature in his person, or hypostasis, hence the hypostatic union. The humanity of Christ did not exist prior to the incarnation, so it is confusing at best if not misleading to say that the Son of God "incorporated the humanity of Jesus", as a normal English reading of that phrase would infer that the humanity of Jesus existed prior to being united to the divine nature. The person of the Son of God died in his human nature, and then was raised back to life in his human nature, which he continues to possess after the ascension.

curiousdannii
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  • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat. – curiousdannii May 10 '21 at 13:02
  • @curioudannii For the record, in the linked chat I have proved that your Answer leads to a contradiction. You have never objected to my demonstration ... – Miguel de Servet Jun 14 '21 at 21:04
  • @MigueldeServet It's only a contradiction when you misunderstand what Trinitarians teach. We never said immutability concerned the incarnation. You never defined immutability in such a way that it did and asked whether I agreed with your definition or not. If everyone agreed with how you define things of course it would be a contradiction. That should make you realise that other people have different definitions. You can't be the first person in history to every point out that the incarnation is a change. Do you think all Trinitarians are so dumb as to have never thought about it? – curiousdannii Jun 14 '21 at 21:43