5

There are three conditions for a sin to be mortal:

  1. It must be a grave sin. Eg. Anything from the 10 commandments, Adultery, Murder etc.
  2. It must be committed with full consent of the will.
  3. The person who commits the sin must be aware that it is a grave sin. ("Full knowledge")

This leads me to wonder, are non-Catholics who don't believe in mortal sin by that very fact, immune from committing mortal sins? My reasoning is that, a person who doesn't believe in mortal sin could be said to be "unaware" that their sins are grave, and if they are "unaware" that their sins are grave, then their sins are not mortal, therefore they won't go to Hell (I think the correct terminology is to say that they are in invincible ignorance).

Extrapolating this line of reasoning, doesn't this mean that most if not all non-Catholics will be saved? Because these non-Catholics are presumably "unaware" that they have to be part of the Catholic church in order to be saved. And if they are "unaware" of this then they are not in a state of mortal sin because they don't have full knowledge and are thus in invincible ignorance and wont go to Hell.

On the other hand, imagine that the non-Catholic has only met a single Catholic in their entire life and the only thing that the Catholic said to them was "you have to convert to my religion or you will go to Hell". In this case is the non-Catholic still "unaware" that they need to join the church or does a brief warning such as this count as being given "Full knowledge"?

Finally, it seems possible to say that all non-Catholics are in a state of invincible ignorance, because if they had full knowledge that they have to become Catholic to be saved, then they would hurry up and convert. But they don't do this, so it seems fair to assume that they are unconvinced and therefore unaware. (Who on earth would become sincerely convinced that to go to Heaven and avoid Hell they have to join the Church, and then not do it?)

In summary my questions are

  1. How is it possible for a non-Catholic to commit a mortal sin? and
  2. Are all non-Catholics in the state of invincible ignorance as per my reasoning above, and if not, where did I go wrong?
TheIronKnuckle
  • 2,787
  • 19
  • 47

1 Answers1

3

If the non-Catholic is not baptized, the non-Catholic has original sin and is damned, "unless before the end of life the same have been added to the flock," as Pope Eugene IV puts it in his Cantate Domino.

If the non-Catholic is baptized, he does not have original sin, but he can certainly commit actual sins (mortal or venial).

Cain and Onan—who committed the sins of fratricide and contraception, respectively—were before Christ, yet that did not except them from sin.

Geremia
  • 39,167
  • 4
  • 47
  • 103
  • 1
    How is it possible for non-Catholic to commit a mortal sin, given the reasoning in the question? – TheIronKnuckle Jan 31 '17 at 02:46
  • 1
    I've seen it reasoned that Onan's sin was not contraception, it was violating the law about taking the wife of his brother per the law. – KorvinStarmast Jan 31 '17 at 02:54
  • @TheIronKnuckle Sin is the baseline condition of all of mankind since the Fall. See the doctrine of Original sin. That's how, and that's the perspective that this answer is coming from. – KorvinStarmast Jan 31 '17 at 02:56
  • @KorvinStarmast I'm zeroing in on this answer's second paragraph when I ask "How?". Assuming that they are baptised, how is it possible for them to commit mortal sins if they are unaware that it is even possible to commit mortal sins? – TheIronKnuckle Jan 31 '17 at 02:59
  • @KorvinStarmast. No I'm asking (for example), is it is it possible for a baptised protestant who doesn't believe in mortal sin to commit a mortal sin? I'm reasoning that they are unaware that it's possible to commit mortal sins, therefore they don't meet the requirement of "full knowledge" and would be immune from mortal sins. – TheIronKnuckle Jan 31 '17 at 04:51
  • @KorvinStarmast Why do Holy Scriptures mention Onan spilled his seed on the ground, then? God says nothing without a reason. – Geremia Jan 31 '17 at 16:40
  • @TheIronKnuckle If they are ignorant, this does not help them, but God certainly doesn't hold their inculpable ignorance against them. – Geremia Jan 31 '17 at 16:42
  • @Geremia It has been explained to me as an act of defiance and selfishness, rather than adhering to the law regarding taking in his (dead) brothers wife (and presumably having children with her?) – KorvinStarmast Jan 31 '17 at 17:50
  • 2
    I don't see why Protestants would be unable to distinguish grave sin from venial sin. For example, could they commit adultery without knowing it is a grave sin? – zippy2006 Jan 31 '17 at 20:30
  • if non-Catholics cannot commit mortal sin, then there can't be any non-Catholics in hell, which is absurd by Catholic doctrine – eques May 12 '20 at 19:45