The Bible reports that in accord with the requirement of the Mosaic Law, 40 days after Jesus’ birth Mary offered at the temple in Jerusalem a sin offering for purification from uncleanness. If she inherited no sin and imperfection from Adam why would she have done this?—Luke 2:22-24; Lev. 12:1-8.
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I guess the next question for Catholics may be: was Mary aware of her sinless condition? – Kris Oct 10 '15 at 22:36
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@pam that to has been asked. – Marc Oct 10 '15 at 23:31
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@marc thanks I will look before I leap next time. this site is very cool because if the civility between the asker and answerer. – Kris Oct 11 '15 at 01:23