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We all know Jesus had chosen his apostles who are all men. But is there any passage in the bible that says Women cannot become priests?

Double U
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Ragnarok
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1 Answers1

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The closest Scriptural verse that could support why the Sacrament of Orders cannot be conferred on a woman is 1 Tim. 2:12: "But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to use authority over the man: but to be in silence."

Plus, is there any biblical precedent for priestesses "according to the order of Melchisedech" (Psalm 109/110:4)?

Here's St. Thomas Aquinas's explanation for why "the female sex is an impediment to receiving Orders:"

Certain things are required in the recipient of a sacrament as being requisite for the validity of the sacrament, and if such things be lacking, one can receive neither the sacrament nor the reality of the sacrament. Other things, however, are required, not for the validity of the sacrament, but for its lawfulness, as being congruous to the sacrament; and without these one receives the sacrament, but not the reality of the sacrament. Accordingly we must say that the male sex is required for receiving Orders not only in the second, but also in the first way. Wherefore even though a woman were made the object of all that is done in conferring Orders, she would not receive Orders, for since a sacrament is a sign, not only the thing, but the signification of the thing, is required in all sacramental actions; thus it was stated above (Question [32], Article [2]) that in Extreme Unction it is necessary to have a sick man, in order to signify the need of healing. Accordingly, since it is not possible in the female sex to signify eminence of degree, for a woman is in the state of subjection, it follows that she cannot receive the sacrament of Order. Some, however, have asserted that the male sex is necessary for the lawfulness and not for the validity of the sacrament, because even in the Decretals (cap. Mulieres dist. 32; cap. Diaconissam, 27, qu. i) mention is made of deaconesses and priestesses. But deaconess there denotes a woman who shares in some act of a deacon, namely who reads the homilies in the Church; and priestess [presbytera] means a widow, for the word "presbyter" means elder.

Thus, a female cannot receive the Sacrament of Holy Orders just like a priest cannot baptize with motor oil or consecrate a dorito chip.

Every sacrament requires the proper:

  1. Matter (e.g., unleavened bread for the Eucharist or water for baptism)
  2. Form (the correct words pronounced to effect the sacrament)
  3. Intention (to do what the Church does)

If any of these are lacking, the sacrament is not valid.

Geremia
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  • Do Catholic Priests claim to be in the order of Melchizedek? Wow, I've never heard that before. – curiousdannii Jun 27 '14 at 01:50
  • But in my opinion, I believe that women are capable of administering the sacraments the priests are doing. And I believe that women can fully represent God. – Ragnarok Jun 27 '14 at 01:55
  • @curiousdanii, actually of course it is Christ who was "in the order of Melchizedek", but the priest is acting "in the person of Christ". – Matt Gutting Jun 27 '14 at 02:11
  • I doubt it that women cannot act in the person of Christ because all men are called to live a christian life. – Ragnarok Jun 27 '14 at 02:22
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    @Ragnarok, Then become a Methodist, because obviously the RCC ain't changing its position anytime soon. :) – david brainerd Jun 27 '14 at 02:42
  • @davidbrainerd CCC 2472 "The duty of Christians to take part in the life of the Church impels them to act as witnesses of the Gospel and of the obligations that flow from it. This witness is a transmission of the faith in words and deeds. Witness is an act of justice that establishes the truth or makes it known." I think this justifies that catholic women are capable of resembling Christ. – Ragnarok Jun 27 '14 at 02:52
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    @Ragnarok, My point is what you think might matter somewhere else, but not in a hierarchical church where the laity gets no say, just as it wouldn't in a purely scriptural church where neither clergy nor laity have power to change doctrine. One strange thing is the RCC would have a better argument if they didn't reject the rules in the pastorals (like 1 Tim 3:2) that the presbyter and bishops must be "the husband of one wife." They could easily say "see, has to be a man" but since they reject this in favor of priestly celibacy... – david brainerd Jun 27 '14 at 02:57
  • @davidbrainerd so its because of the doctrine why women cannot become priests then? – Ragnarok Jun 27 '14 at 03:03
  • @david that might be because they follow scripture too, that it is better to be like chaste like Paul if you're man enough. – Peter Turner Jun 27 '14 at 03:36
  • @Peter Turner, That's true in general from the scriptures (per 1 Cor 7) but the rules for pastoral clergy state they must be married and have kids, even faithful kids, and thinking about for even as short as one minute we would see the reason why is because the majority of those they will minister to will be married with children and they'll have no clue about marriage to counsel these people if they aren't too. Monks and clergy are not the same. Clerical celibacy is antiscriptural, even though celibacy is the ideal for those who can accept it and are not seeking office. – david brainerd Jun 30 '14 at 02:01