9

Why is it that the Academies of Shammai and Hillel have contradictory opinions in most of the verses? It's almost as if one is waiting for the other to give a contradictory opinion.

Take, for example, Shabbat 1:6:

Bet Shammai says, One may not put bundles of flax into the oven, unless they will be steamed during the day; nor wool into the kettle, unless it will absorb the appearance. But Bet Hillel permits it. Bet Shammai says, One may not spread nets for animals, birds or fish, unless they ensnare during the day; Bet Hillel permits.

According to one count there are 316 disputes that involve them.

And why are the opinions of Beit Shammai not widely followed, although their rulings seem to appear more orthodox?

Yishai
  • 31,937
  • 1
  • 62
  • 130
narnia
  • 243
  • 1
  • 2
  • 8
  • 6
    Also, what do you mean by "more orthodox"? Do you mean "stricter"? – MTL Nov 18 '14 at 17:26
  • related: http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/18768/why-are-disputes-in-pairs?rq=1 http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/27325/what-did-beit-hillel-and-beit-shammai-argue-about-for-three-years?rq=1 – Charles Koppelman Nov 18 '14 at 18:00
  • 4
    Why should a stricter ruling be favourable? – bondonk Nov 18 '14 at 18:27
  • In part, they represented different class interests - Hillel representing the poorer and Shammai the wealthier. – Charles Koppelman Nov 18 '14 at 20:51
  • 1
    The arguments above are doing this things on a Friday when the act being achieved will occur on Shabbat. So you spread the net on a Friday and the animal gets caught on Shabbat.

    If it were forbidden all our time-switches would be forbidden.

    – CashCow Nov 20 '14 at 17:42
  • @CashCow correct and this act which is what forbidden in sabbath. Even the owner of the act is the Jew and its not naturally occuring , this indeed makes even time-switches forbidden. You see now in this age all things can be automized which will loose all sancity of sabath – narnia Nov 21 '14 at 05:12
  • Strongly related: http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/22956/5323 – MTL Nov 21 '14 at 16:01
  • 1
    This q has a strong selection bias. Most times they don't argue, but you don't notice. – Double AA Jan 19 '16 at 18:57

5 Answers5

14

In terms of why they argue, the Arizal wrote that Beis Shammai embodied the characteristic of middas hadin, strict justice, whereas Beis Hillel embodied the attribute of middas harachamim, mercy. They had world-views which led to their manifold disputes, with B"S consistently falling on the side of stringency and B"H on the side of leniency.

(It was once explained to me that this is why according to some Rishonim, following both the stringencies of Beis Shammai and Beis Hillel is foolish (Eruvin 6b) is limited specifically to Beis Shammai and Beis Hillel because they had opposing world-views, and choosing the stringencies of both is a silly mix of two independently internally-consistant but mutually exclusive schools of thought.)

As to why the rulings of Beis Shammai are not followed, the simple explanation is stated in the Talmud (Eruvin 13b) - a Bas Kol (heavenly voice) came out and announced that we follow Beis Hillel over Beis Shammai, even though they both espouse the words of G-d. The Talmud goes on to explain that this is because Beis Hillel were patient, and taught the opinion of Beis Shammai before their own. (Some understand this to be a sort of reward, however some explain it to mean that they were therefore better informed, as they were more accepting and contemplative of the opinions of their adversaries.) However, on a deeper level, the Arizal explains the statement of the Zohar that in the future, the halacha will follow Beis Shammai as follows - this world is a world which cannot live up to the strict measures of exacting justice, and Hashem runs the world with the balance of mercy. However, in the future, when the world is perfected, it will run on the standards of justice, and Beis Shammai will be the prevailing opinion.

Y     e     z
  • 58,536
  • 3
  • 109
  • 249
  • related http://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/17316/759 – Double AA Nov 18 '14 at 21:27
  • 1
    esp. the comments. – Y     e     z Nov 18 '14 at 21:31
  • Bas Kol? what is the authenticity of such voice? Is it not possible that one side invented this Bas Kol to settle the matter? what if two people receive contradictory bas kols ? – narnia Nov 19 '14 at 05:59
  • @narnia You could always ask that as a separate question, but the Bas Kol did not appear to one side or the other - it was heard by all, and they didn't have Dolby Digital back then to fake one. Its authenticity isn't really a question - its authority, on the other hand... – Y     e     z Nov 19 '14 at 18:21
  • The halachah follows the majority view. We do follow Beis Shammai on about 5 issues though. One of these is related to the minimum size of a sukkah: whether it needs to be big enough to fit a person and their table. And also whether someone eating with the table outside the sukkah is fulfilling the mitzvah. – CashCow Nov 20 '14 at 14:37
  • @YeZ well its very authenticity is in strict question too. Why it cant be some one else , you can ask a trickster\david copperfield on how to generate bas kohls which could be heard by all without using dolby digital? – narnia Nov 21 '14 at 05:16
  • and even the bas kohl might have not happned at all, just concocted by the victorious group? – narnia Nov 21 '14 at 05:17
  • 2
    @narnia I don't understand your second comment. Why do you think this story was recorded exclusively by the "victorious group"? Beis Hillel don't write the Talmud. – jim Nov 23 '14 at 04:37
  • @CashCow The question seems to have been who the "majority" was, as Beis Hillel was larger but Beis Shammai was sharper. It required a bas kol to resolve, not just someone to remember "oh yeah, acharei rabbim l'hatos!" – Y     e     z Nov 24 '14 at 19:57
  • Do you happen to have a source for the Arizal's statement? – DonielF Apr 10 '19 at 20:41
  • @DonielF Shaar Hagilgulim hakdama 34. (I heard it in a shiur, I am not a fluent expert in Arizal.) – Y     e     z Apr 11 '19 at 02:50
4

Your premise is wrong, they do not argue in most places, in fact compared to the amount of things they agree on it is almost as if they do not argue about anything. For example in the example you brought they disagree about whether a person's objects are required to rest on Shabbos. They only disagree about this after they agree that:

  1. Melacha is Assur on Shabbos
  2. Shabbos is the seventh day of the week
  3. Shabbos starts at night etc. etc.
  • 1
    6 That the earth is round, 7 That they're of the same species. 8 That sun rises from the west. The amount of agreements doesn't make the amount of disagreements less problematic. – Lie Ryan Nov 18 '14 at 23:05
  • @LieRyan Can you include an explanation for your point? My point was they only disagree on minute details, even though there are many of them. –  Nov 18 '14 at 23:10
  • @LieRyan Your examples of agreements are not relevant to the discussion. Those agreements do not lead to this disagreement, whereas the stated agreements are contextual prerequisites of this disagreement. – Y     e     z Nov 19 '14 at 18:23