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The two days of Rosh Hashanah are considered as one day (Yoma Arichta), so why do we say Shehecheyanu when we blow the Shofar on the second day? Moreover even if we somehow view it as two days, why say a Shehecheyanu again on the Shofar when we don't say one on Lulav or on sitting in the Sukkah on the second day of Sukkos which is certainly viewed as two days (S'feika d'Yoma)?

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Arnold
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  • Related: http://judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/7175/why-do-we-say-pesach-seder-brachot-both-nights – Monica Cellio Oct 17 '12 at 12:31
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    Arnold, welcome to Mi Yodeya, and thanks very much for posing this interesting seeming contradiction! I look forward to seeing you around. – Isaac Moses Oct 17 '12 at 14:13
  • Second question is dupe of http://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/10701/759 – Double AA Oct 17 '12 at 16:13
  • OK all: This post has two questions. The second is an exact duplicate and is the one that has been answered. We have two options: edit out the first question (seems like a waste, unless Arnold is willing to repost it; are you?) and merge this into the dupe; edit out the second question and delete Michoel's answer (he would have to agree for this to work) which he can repost himself to the other question. Thoughts? – Double AA Oct 17 '12 at 16:28
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    @DoubleAA The second question, by itself, is a dupe, but I read this question as posing the apparent contradiction seen in the juxtaposition of the Shofar and Lulav cases, which is not a dupe, which inclusion of both subquestions here is necessary for, and which Michoel's answer addresses. I recommend editing this question to be more explicitly about the contradiction and to refer explicitly to the prior question about Lulav alone. – Isaac Moses Oct 17 '12 at 17:12
  • @IsaacMoses If it's just this contradiction then that is a weak question because it doesn't include all the other instances of shehechiyanu on the second day. The one question is why not on Lulav when all other second days' issues are the same as their respective first days. The other is why does Shofar get included in the general rule for second days when it is really a first day the whole holiday. – Double AA Oct 17 '12 at 17:17
  • @DoubleAA Then I'd suggest that rather than try to do some delicate surgery, just add a reference to the other question in this question and live with the duplication and with the dual question. Weak though it may be, I think the seeming contradiction is sufficient to, at least bediavad, allow these two subquestions to coexist in one post. Also, Michoel's answer seems to address the two together, so it would be a shame to try to break that up because of an uncaught partial dupe. – Isaac Moses Oct 17 '12 at 17:23
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    @IsaacMoses How about changing the last line to "Moreover even if we somehow view it as two days, why say a Shehecheyanu again on the Shofar when we don't say one on Lulav or on sitting in the Sukkah on the second day of Sukkos which is certainly viewed as two days?" – Double AA Oct 17 '12 at 17:32
  • @DoubleAA Sounds good to me. – Isaac Moses Oct 17 '12 at 17:32
  • FTR It's still really two questions. Just now they're phrased to be kinda related. – Double AA Oct 17 '12 at 17:52

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The Shulchan Aruch Harav (OC 600:5-7) explains that although some hold that the two days of Rosh Hashana are considered one day with regards to the brocha shechiyanu, the Halacha is not like them and therefore we make a second shechiyanu the second day by Kiddush and Shofar blowing. [However, we do try and take the opinion into concern and therefore have a new fruit/clothes but this is only l'chumra and l'chatchila].

Regarding the difference between Shofar and Lulav - the earliest source I could find that deals with this is the Tashbatz (a student of the Maharam of Rottenburg) Ois 151 who brings an answer in the name of R' Nissim Gaon. [I'm don't understand the answer (yet), so I won't explain it here].

The Levush OC 662:2 (and similarly in Magen Avraham S"K 1 there) also addresses the question and explains that in the case of Lulav it is enough to make the brocha once - if that day was Yom Tov he certainly fulfilled the obligation, if it was a weekday it's no worse than if he made the brocha when he made the Lulav which would work. However, by Shofar one cannot make a brocha at the time of making the Shofar; the brocha only works when it's blown. [Since a) most people don't make their shofar personally b) a new shofar is not made every year]. We therefore make the brocha again the second day incase the first day was not Yom Tov. (This same line of reasoning would also explain why we do not make shechiyanu on Sukkah the second day.) See also Pri Megadim on M"A for another reason.

Michoel
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In terms of Shehechiyanu on the second day for Shofar, it is not as clear as you make it sound that this should be the Halacha. First of all Rashi in a Teshuva (quoted in Tur OC 600) quotes and argues with his Rabbis whether to say Shehechiyanu at Kiddush on the second night. His Rabbis argued not to, as it is one long day. Rashi disagrees because even in the days of the Mikdash they would say Shehecheyanu on both days because whenever there was a second day of Rosh Hashana, it was the real one. The Halacha follows Rashi, but the custom is to have a new fruit or new clothing at the time of Kiddush to fulfill the opinion of Rashi's Rabbis as well.

As for Shofar, the same discussion would apply, although see Beit Yosef 600 who seems to quote opinions that wouldn't say Shehecheyanu on the second day if the first day was a weekday (if the first day was Shabbat and the Shofar is not blown then all agree Shehecheyanu is said by Shofar on the second day). Also see Bach who tries to argue that the argument of Rashi's Rabbis doesn't apply to Shofar, although neither I nor the Mishna Berura (Shaar Hatziyun 5) seem to understand his argument.

Double AA
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